SLST IX-X Physical Science Online Free Mock Test: Set 1

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Prepare smartly for the SLST (Classes IX–X) Physical Science exam with our Free Online Mock Test – Set 1, designed to match the latest syllabus and exam pattern. This test helps you assess your conceptual understanding in Physics and Chemistry, improve time management, and identify weak areas.

The mock test includes carefully selected MCQs covering key topics such as motion, force, energy, matter, atomic structure, and chemical reactions. Each question is framed at a competitive level to build exam confidence.

Instant results with detailed explanations allow you to learn from mistakes and strengthen your preparation. Whether you are revising or testing your readiness, this free mock test is a perfect step toward success in SLST.

Start now and track your progress effectively!

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SLST IX-X Physical Science Online Free Mock Test: Set 1

CHEMISTRY + PHYSICS: Set/01 - Hard
Paper 1 Multiple Choice Question: 60 MCQs
SPECIMEN PAPER: 2 hour

The total mark for this paper is 60.
Each correct answer will score one mark

1 / 60

The hydrogen molecule contains a covalent bond. What holds the atoms together in this covalent molecule?

A. the electrostatic attraction between the atoms in the molecule

B. the electrostatic attraction between the electron of one hydrogen atom and the nucleus of the other hydrogen atom

C. the electrostatic attraction between the electrons in the bond pair and the two nuclei

D. the energy released in the formation of the covalent bond

Short Explanation

In a covalent bond (like in H₂), the atoms are held together by electrostatic attraction between the shared pair of electrons and both nuclei.

The bonding electrons are attracted to both hydrogen nuclei, creating a stable bond.

Options A and B are incomplete descriptions.

Option D is incorrect because energy release is a result, not the force holding atoms together.

2 / 60

Q2. The actual values of the masses of three sub-atomic particles are shown in the table:

Particle Mass (kg)

proton 1.673 × 10⁻²⁷

neutron 1.675 × 10⁻²⁷

electron 9.109 × 10⁻³¹

Which nickel ion is predicted to have a mass of 1.038 × 10⁻²⁵ kg from these data?

A. ⁵⁸₂₈Ni³⁺

B. ⁶⁰₂₈Ni²⁺

C. ⁶²₂₈Ni²⁺

D. ⁶⁴₂₈Ni³⁺

Short Explanation

Mass of an atom ≈ (protons + neutrons) × 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg

Electron mass is very small, so we ignore it.

Now check:

For Ni-62 → total nucleons = 62
Mass ≈ 62 × 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷
≈ 1.035 × 10⁻²⁵ kg (very close to given 1.038 × 10⁻²⁵)

Other options give masses further away.

✔ So, Ni-62²⁺ is the best match.

3 / 60

Which statement about 1 mol of a metal is always correct?

A. It contains the same number of atoms as 1 mol of hydrogen atoms.

B. It contains the same number of atoms as 1/12 mol of ¹²C atoms.

C. It has the same mass as 1 mol of hydrogen atoms.

D. It is liberated from its ions by 1 mol of electrons.

Short Explanation

1 mole of any element always contains Avogadro’s number (6.02 × 10²³) of atoms.

So, 1 mol of a metal has the same number of atoms as 1 mol of hydrogen atoms.

Why others are wrong:

B: 1/12 mol has fewer atoms

C: Mass depends on molar mass, not same

D: Depends on charge of ion, not always 1 mol electrons

✔ Therefore, A is always correct.

4 / 60

Which statement about this structure ice crystal is correct?

A. All the bond angles surrounding each oxygen atom are 120°.

B. Four electrons from each oxygen atom are involved in forming hydrogen bonds.

C. The hydrogen bonds, shown by the dotted line, are stronger than the O–H covalent bonds.

D. The open structure of ice causes ice to be denser than water.

Short Explanation

Each oxygen atom has two lone pairs (4 electrons).

These lone pairs are responsible for forming hydrogen bonds with neighboring H atoms.

Why others are wrong:

A: Bond angle is ~104.5°, not 120°

C: Hydrogen bonds are weaker than covalent bonds

D: Ice is less dense than water due to open structure

✔ Hence, B is correct.

5 / 60

The head of the first type of match, called a ‘lucifer’, contained a mixture of antimony(III) sulfide and potassium chlorate(V). When the match was ‘struck’, the following reaction took place:

Sb₂S₃(s) + 3KClO₃(s) → Sb₂O₃(s) + 3KCl(s) + 3SO₂(g)

Which element is reduced in the reaction?

A. antimony

B. chlorine

C. oxygen

D. sulfur

Short Explanation

To find reduction, check oxidation state decreases:

In KClO₃, chlorine = +5

In KCl, chlorine = −1

So chlorine changes:

+5 → −1 → reduction

Other changes:

Sulfur: −2 → +4 (oxidation)

Antimony: remains +3

✔ Therefore, chlorine is reduced.

6 / 60

Use of the data booklet is relevant to this question.

The successive ionisation energies, in kJ mol⁻¹, of an element X are given:

870, 1800, 3000, 3600, 5800, 7000, 13200

What is X?

A. ₃₃As

B. ₄₀Zr

C. ₅₂Te

D. ₅₃I

Short Explanation

Look for the big jump in ionisation energy:

870 → 1800 → 3000 → 3600 → 5800 → 7000 → 13200

The biggest jump is after removing 6 electrons: This means X has 6 valence electrons.

Elements with 6 valence electrons belong to Group 16.

From options:

As → Group 15 ❌

Zr → Group 4 ❌

Te → Group 16 ✅

I → Group 17 ❌

✔ Therefore, X = Tellurium (Te).

7 / 60

Synthetic rubber is commonly produced from the monomer buta-1,3-diene.

What are the numbers of σ bonds and π bonds present in one molecule of buta-1,3-diene?

6,4

7,4

8,2

9,2

8 / 60

Polymerisation of ethene gives poly(ethene).

How does the carbon-carbon bond in poly(ethene) compare with that in ethene?

A. The carbon-carbon bond is longer and stronger in poly(ethene).

B. The carbon-carbon bond is longer and weaker in poly(ethene).

C. The carbon-carbon bond is shorter and stronger in poly(ethene).

D. The carbon-carbon bond is shorter and weaker in poly(ethene).

Short Explanation

In ethene (C=C), the carbon-carbon bond is a double bond:

shorter

stronger

In poly(ethene), the double bond opens to form single C–C bonds:

longer

weaker

✔ Therefore, the C–C bond in poly(ethene) is longer and weaker than in ethene.

9 / 60

The elements phosphorus, sulfur and chlorine all exhibit covalent bonding. Their melting points are listed:

phosphorus: 44°C

sulfur: 115°C

chlorine: −101°C

What accounts for these differences in melting points?

A. the number of bond pairs in the molecules

B. the number of electrons in the atoms

C. the number of electrons in the molecules

D. the number of unpaired electrons in the atoms

Short Explanation

These substances are simple molecular substances:

phosphorus = P₄

sulfur = S₈

chlorine = Cl₂

Their melting points depend on the strength of London dispersion forces between molecules.

Key idea:

More electrons in a molecule → larger electron cloud

Stronger temporary dipole attractions

Higher melting point

So:

S₈ has most electrons → highest mp

P₄ intermediate

Cl₂ least → lowest mp

✔ Therefore, the difference is due to the number of electrons in the molecules.

10 / 60

Which set of bond angles in pyruvic acid [ CH₃–CO–CO₂H ] would be predicted by Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory?

A. 105°, 109°, 120°

B. 105°, 120° only

C. 109°, 120°, 180°

D. 109°, 120° only

Short Explanation

Pyruvic acid: CH₃–CO–COOH

Bond angles present:

1. CH₃ carbon:

tetrahedral

bond angle ≈ 109°

2. Carbonyl carbon (C=O):

trigonal planar

bond angle ≈ 120°

3. Carboxylic acid carbon:

also trigonal planar

≈ 120°

Why others are wrong?

105° is typical for bent molecules like H₂O (due to lone pairs), not here

180° is linear geometry, not present in pyruvic acid

✔ Therefore, only 109° and 120° are present.

11 / 60

The gases butane, 2-methylpropane and propane are kept in a sealed container at atmospheric pressure and room temperature.

Which row represents the order in which these gases will liquefy as the pressure in the container is gradually increased?

A

B

C

D

Short Explanation:

Liquefaction depends on boiling point:

butane (straight chain) → highest boiling point

2-methylpropane (branched) → slightly lower

propane → lowest boiling point

Higher boiling point gas liquefies first on increasing pressure.

✔ Order: butane → 2-methylpropane → propane

12 / 60

Ammonia gas reacts with gaseous hydrogen chloride to form a white smoke of ammonium chloride.

Which statements correctly describe the behaviour of ammonia in this reaction?

It acts as an Arrhenius acid.

It acts as an Arrhenius base.

It acts as a Brønsted–Lowry acid.

It acts as a Brønsted–Lowry base.

A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 only

D. 4 only

Short Explanation

Reaction:

NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl

NH₃ accepts H⁺ from HCl

So NH₃ acts as a Brønsted–Lowry base

Why not Arrhenius base?

Arrhenius base produces OH⁻ in aqueous solution

Here reaction is in gas phase, so Arrhenius concept does not apply

✔ Therefore, only statement 4 is correct → D

13 / 60

Which solution, when added to 25 cm³ of 0.100 mol dm⁻³ NaOH, produces a buffer solution?

A. 25 cm³ of 0.075 mol dm⁻³ CH₃CO₂H

B. 25 cm³ of 0.100 mol dm⁻³ HCl

C. 100 cm³ of 0.050 mol dm⁻³ HCl

D. 150 cm³ of 0.025 mol dm⁻³ CH₃CO₂H

After reaction:

acid left = 0.00125 mol

acetate formed = 0.0025 mol

Weak acid + conjugate base present → buffer

✔ Therefore, D is correct.

14 / 60

The table shows data on two acid-base indicators:

Indicator pH range Acid colour Alkali colour

bromocresol green 3.8–5.5 yellow blue

phenol red 6.8–8.5 yellow red

Which conclusion can be drawn about a solution in which:

bromocresol green is blue

phenol red is yellow

weakly acidic

it is nutral

weakly alkaline

strongly alkaline

Short Explanation

Bromocresol green blue → pH > 5.5

Phenol red yellow → pH < 6.8

So:

This is slightly above acidic region / near neutral but on alkaline side.

✔ Therefore, solution is weakly alkaline → C

15 / 60

When there is a small increase in the amount of CO₂(g) in the atmosphere, the pH of an ocean is maintained by a series of chemical reactions. Which equation maintains the pH in the ocean?

A. CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃

B. H₂CO₃ → H⁺ + HCO₃⁻

C. Ca²⁺ + 2H⁻ → CaH₂

D. H⁺ + CO₃²⁻ → HCO₃⁻

Short Explanation

When CO₂ dissolves in ocean water:

CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃

H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻

This increases H⁺, which would lower pH.

To resist this change, the ocean uses its carbonate buffer system:

This reaction removes excess H⁺, helping maintain pH.

✔ Therefore, D is the buffering reaction that maintains ocean pH.

16 / 60

Q16. Which row describes and explains the trend in electronegativity from fluorine to iodine?

A

B

C

D

Short Explanation

From fluorine to iodine (down Group 17):

Atomic radius increases

More electron shells are added

More shielding occurs

So the bonding pair of electrons is farther from the nucleus and feels less attraction.

Thus:

Electronegativity decreases down the group

✔ Therefore, A is correct.

17 / 60

Which diagram represents the change in ionic radius of the ions of the elements across the third period (Na to Cl)?

A

B

C

D

18 / 60

The diagram represents the Boltzmann distribution of molecular energies of a sample of gas at a given temperature.

As temperature increases, which statements are correct?

The maximum of the curve is displaced to the right.

The proportion of molecules with energies above any given value increases.

The proportion of molecules with any given energy increases.

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Short Explanation

When temperature increases:

✔ Statement 1: True

Peak moves to the right (higher energy)

✔ Statement 2: True

More molecules have energy above any chosen activation energy

✘ Statement 3: False

The distribution spreads out

Some energy values have lower proportion, some higher

Not true for any given energy

✔ Therefore, 1 and 2 only are correct → B

19 / 60

The conversion of diamond into graphite is slightly exothermic. Diamond does not readily change into graphite.

Which reaction pathway diagram correctly represents this conversion?

A

B

C

D

Short Explanation

Given:

Slightly exothermic → products have slightly lower energy than reactants

Does not readily change → high activation energy

So correct graph must show:

✔ Diamond starts at higher energy
✔ Graphite ends slightly lower
✔ Large hump (high activation energy)

Check options:

A: graphite higher → wrong

B: low activation energy → wrong

C: graphite same/higher → wrong

D: slight energy drop + large activation energy → correct

✔ Therefore, D is correct.

20 / 60

Which statement about the effect of a catalyst on a system at equilibrium is correct?

A. It increases the equilibrium constant for the forward reaction.

B. It increases the equilibrium yield of product.

C. It increases the rate constant equally for both the forward reaction and the reverse reaction.

D. It increases the rate constant for the forward reaction, but not that of the reverse reaction.

Short Explanation

A catalyst:

lowers activation energy for both forward and reverse reactions

speeds up both reactions equally

does not change equilibrium position or Kc

✔ Therefore, C is correct

21 / 60

In the reaction between aqueous sodium thiosulfate and dilute acid:

first order with respect to [acid] at low concentration

zero order with respect to [acid] at high concentration

Which graph represents the experimental results?

A

B

C

D

22 / 60

Q22. The use of catalytic converters in car exhaust systems reduces the amount of harmful nitrogen oxides emitted into the atmosphere.

Which statements about the catalytic converter are correct?

The catalyst is coated onto a honeycomb surface to provide a smaller surface area to increase the rate of the reaction.

The catalyst used is a heterogeneous catalyst which lowers the activation energy for the conversion of NO into N₂.

The forces of attraction holding the CO and NO molecules onto the surface of the catalyst are weaker than the forces of attraction holding the product molecules onto the surface.

Rhodium can be used as a catalyst in the catalytic converter.

A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 1 and 3

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4 only

23 / 60

In which reaction will the equilibrium yield of the right-hand product be increased by both of the indicated changes in pressure and temperature?

A

B

C

D

24 / 60

Iodine trichloride, ICl₃, is made by reacting iodine with chlorine. Given:

Find standard enthalpy of formation of solid ICl₃.

A (−84 kJ mol⁻¹)

B (−74 kJ mol⁻¹)

C (−94 kJ mol⁻¹)

DB (−54 kJ mol⁻¹)

25 / 60

The equation for the complete combustion of ethanethiol is:

A 20 cm³ sample of ethanethiol vapour is ignited with 100 cm³ of oxygen. After burning, the gas is cooled to room temperature. The cooled gas is then treated with excess aqueous alkali. What percentage of the final volume of cooled gas dissolves in the alkali?

A. 29%

B. 57%

C. 86%

D. 100%

26 / 60

What is the skeletal formula for 2,2,3-trimethylpentane?

A

B

C

D

27 / 60

Which molecular formulae could represent molecules that exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

C₃H₆BrI

C₃H₅I

C₃H₄I₂

C₃H₄BrI

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 3 and 4 only

28 / 60

A

B

C

D

29 / 60

A

B

C

D

30 / 60

When egg white is heated, protein molecules are denatured. Which statements describe what happens in this process?

The hydrogen bonds and induced dipole interactions are broken.

The peptide bonds are broken by hydrolysis.

The three-dimensional structure of the molecule changes.

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

31 / 60

A voltmeter connected across a resistor in a circuit gives readings that have high precision but low accuracy.
Which row describes the likely error in readings taken with this voltmeter?

A

B

C

D

32 / 60

An astronomical event in a nova (new star) was estimated to have an energy of 100TJ and a duration of 10µs.
What power was produced in this event?

A. 1012 MW

B. 10¹³ MW

C. 10¹³ GW

D. 1019 MW

33 / 60

Two vectors, P and Q, have equal components in the x-direction, but the magnitude of P is smaller than the magnitude of Q.
How do the angles that Q and P make with the y-axis, and the magnitudes of Q and P in the y-direction, compare?

A

B

C

D

34 / 60

The diagram shows a rectangle with perimeter P.
The sides of the rectangle, measured with an uncertainty of 0.1cm, are Q = 20.0cm and R = 10.0cm

What is the increasing order of the percentage uncertainty of Q, R and P, starting with the smallest?

A. Q → P → R

B. Q → R → P

C. R → P → Q

D. R → Q → P

35 / 60

An astronaut is working on the surface of the Moon. The gravitational field strength g is 1.6ms^–2. He drops a hammer from rest and catches it when it has a speed of 1.8ms^–1 and is 0.50m above the ground. From which height above the ground did he drop the hammer?

A. 1.0m

B. 1.4m

C. 1.5m

D. 1.6m

36 / 60

A. 10s

B. 15s

C. 20s

D. 25s

37 / 60

A ball is projected horizontally and falls under gravity. After time t it has travelled a horizontal distance x and fallen a vertical distance y. Air resistance is negligible.
Which row correctly states the distance travelled horizontally and vertically after time 2t?

A

B

C

D

38 / 60

A firework explodes into many parts after being fired high into the air.
At the time when the explosion takes place, what happens to the total momentum and the total kinetic energy of the system?

A

B

C

D

39 / 60

A train consisting of six wagons each of mass 6.0 × 10⁴ kg is pulled at a constant speed by a locomotive of mass 24 × 10⁴ kg along a straight horizontal track. The horizontal force resisting the motion of each wagon is 4000N

The link between wagons 2 and 3 breaks.
What is the acceleration(ms^–2) of the locomotive immediately after the link breaks?

A 0.02

B 0.044

C 0.067

D 0.133

40 / 60

The elastic potential energy stored in a stretched wire can be calculated from a suitable straight‑line graph which has force plotted on the y-axis.
Which measurement of the wire is plotted on the x-axis, and which property of the graph is equal to the elastic potential energy stored in the wire?

A

B

C

D

41 / 60

Three non-parallel forces act on a body so that it is in equilibrium. Which condition is not correct?

A. The lines of action of the forces pass through a point.

B. The forces are represented in magnitude and direction by three sides of a triangle taken in order.

C The vector sum of the moments of the three forces about any point is zero.

D. The resultant of any two of the forces equals the third in magnitude and direction.

42 / 60

A flat piece of card of uniform thickness is cut out and marked into squares.
Which labelled point is the centre of gravity of the card?

A

B

C

D

43 / 60

A small coin of mass 10g is placed on a horizontal rotating disc at a distance of 5cm from the centre of the disc. The maximum frictional force between the coin and the disc is 0.2N. What is the largest angular velocity that the disc can have without the coin slipping?

A. 0.06rads–1

B. 1rads–1

C. 20rads–1

D. 400rads–1

44 / 60

Which statement about work done is correct?

A. More work is done to change the speed of an object from 2ms–1 to 3ms–1 than to change the speed of the same object from 1ms–1 to 2ms–1.

B. No work is done by a force that slows a moving object.

C. The same amount of work is done lifting an object 1m at a constant velocity as that done by the same object moving 1m at constant velocity across a smooth horizontal surface.

D. When an object is dropped, the force of gravity does no work

45 / 60

The function of many machines is to transfer energy from one store to another as efficiently as possible.
Which machine is the most efficient?

A. a car engine as it transfers energy from chemical potential energy to kinetic energy

B. an electric heater as it transfers energy via the flow of an electric current to internal energy

C. a lamp as it transfers energy via the flow of an electric current to produce light

D. a rocket as it transfers energy from chemical potential energy to gravitational potential energy

46 / 60

For an electron beam, the following quantities are known or are easily measured.
● area A, when the beam hits a target
● beam current I
● accelerating potential difference V
● elementary charge e
Which expression gives the rate of arrival of electrons per unit area on the target?

A

B

C

D

47 / 60

What is the definition of the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a power supply?

A. the energy transferred from the electric circuit per unit charge which passes through it

C. the force needed to move unit charge through the power supply

B. the energy transferred to the electric circuit per unit charge which passes through it

D. the potential difference across the terminals of the power supply

48 / 60

The diagram shows a circuit in which a microammeter records a current of 0.8µA.

Which row gives the direction of movement of electrons through the microammeter shown in the circuit and the number of these electrons passing through the microammeter in 1 second?

A

B

C

D

49 / 60

A voltage with the square waveform shown in the diagram is applied across a 100Ω resistor

A. 0.0625W

B. 0.125W

C. 0.250W

D. 0.500W

50 / 60

A resistor with a value of resistance much greater than R is placed in parallel with a resistor of resistance R.
What is the resistance of the combination?

A. much less than R

B. just a bit less than R

C. just a bit more than R

D. much greater than R

51 / 60

A fixed resistor, a variable resistor, a filament lamp and a cell with negligible internal resistance are arranged in four different circuits.

In how many of these circuits is the brightness of the lamp changed by adjusting the resistance of the variable resistor?

1

2

3

4

52 / 60

A beam of positively charged particles is directed towards one side of a square region that contains a uniform magnetic field.
The magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity of the particles and the plane of the square.
The field can be varied to any magnitude but is constant in direction.
The region of the magnetic field contains a vacuum.

After travelling through the magnetic field, through how many sides of the square region can the positively charged particles possibly pass?

1

2

3

4

53 / 60

There is a current in a straight wire in the direction PR, as shown in the diagram. P and R are two corners of an imaginary cube, with other corners Q, S, T, U, V and W.

A uniform magnetic field is applied through the cube in direction QP. What is the direction of the magnetic force on PR?

A. PT

B. QS

C. SQ

D. TP

54 / 60

The electric current through a cylinder of semiconductor material is supplied by copper wires, as shown in the diagram

The charge carriers in the semiconductor material are electrons. The semiconductor material and the copper have the same cross-sectional area. The table gives details of the number of free electrons per cubic metre in each material.

The drift velocity of electrons through the copper wire is 0.58 mms^–1. What is the drift velocity of electrons through the semiconductor material?

A. 2.9 × 10^–6 ms–1

B. 2.9 × 10^–3 ms–1

C. 1.16 × 10^4 ms–1

D. 1.16 × 10^7 ms–1

55 / 60

Between which points is the resistance of the combination a maximum?

A. P and Q

B. Q and S

C. R and S

D. S and P

56 / 60

A beam of electrons enters a region in which there are magnetic and electric fields directed at right angles. It passes straight through without deviation.

A second beam of electrons, travelling twice as fast as the first, is then directed along the same line. How is this second beam deviated?

A. downwards in the plane of the paper

B. upwards in the plane of the paper

C. out of the plane of the paper

D. into the plane of the paper

57 / 60

A nucleus, Mg (12,27) , decays by emitting a β-particle. What are the proton number and the neutron number of the new nucleus that is formed by the decay?

A. 10, 13

B. 10, 17

C. 12,15

D. 13, 14

58 / 60

The mass of a nucleus is X. The total mass of its constituent protons and neutrons is Y. What is the binding energy of the nucleus?

A

B

C

D

59 / 60

The table shows three properties of different types of ionising radiation.

A

B

C

D

60 / 60

A

B

C

D

Your score is
The average score is 0%
0%

Particle	Mass (kg)
proton	1.673 × 10⁻²⁷
neutron	1.675 × 10⁻²⁷
electron	9.109 × 10⁻³¹

Indicator	pH range	Acid colour	Alkali colour
bromocresol green	3.8–5.5	yellow	blue
phenol red	6.8–8.5	yellow	red

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